UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management June 2013 Paper-I

1. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format ?

(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi – Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

2. A workshop is

(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.

(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.

(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.

(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.

3. A working hypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.

(B) not required to be tested.

(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.

(D) a scientific theory.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (4 to 9) :

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside

the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name.

In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i- Munavvara). Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the griefstricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within

his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently. Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

4. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is

(A) Burhanpur            (B) Makrana

(C) Amber                   (D) Jaipur

5. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan           (B) Tourists

(C) Public                    (D) European travellers

6. Point out the true statement from the following :

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.

(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.

(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.

(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.

7. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known

(A) Mumtazabad

(B) Mumtaz Mahal

(C) Zainabad

(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara

8. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period

(A) 1632 – 1636 A.D.

(B) 1630 – 1643 A.D.

(C) 1632 – 1643 A.D.

(D) 1636 – 1643 A.D.

9. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as

(A) Farman

(B) Sale Deed

(C) Sale-Purchase Deed

(D) None of the above

10. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order?

(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message

(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect

(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect

(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect

11. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by

(A) Dr. Annie Besant

(B) James Augustus Hicky

(C) Lord Cripson

(D) A.O. Hume

12. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister

(A) Rajeev Gandhi

(B) Narasimha Rao

(C) Indira Gandhi

(D) Deve Gowda

13. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as

(A) Entertainment

(B) Interactive communication

(C) Developmental communication

(D) Communitarian

14. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment

(B) Edutainment

(C) Entertainment

(D) Enlightenment

15. ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.

(A) Sympathy

(B) Empathy

(C) Apathy

(D) Antipathy

16. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by





17. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is

(A) 8                (B) 10

(C) 12              (D) 14

18. The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is

(A) 110            (B) 270

(C) 105            (D) 210

19. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is

(A) 18              (B) 24

(C) 33              (D) 36

20. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is

(A) 30              (B) 85/2

(C)170/3          (D) 110

21. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by

(A) 20%          (B) 30%

(C) 40%          (D) 50%

22. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true.

Choose the correct code given below :

(i) All men are honest.

(ii) No men are honest.

(iii) Some men are not honest.

(iv) All men are dishonest.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)

23. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.

Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk, Teacher – ?

(A) Intelligence           (B) Marks

(C) Lessons                 (D) Wisdom

24. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T ?

(A) Wife

(B) Sister-in-law

(C) Brother-in-law

(D) Daughter-in-law

25. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called

(A) Lexical                  (B) Persuasive

(C) Stipulative            (D) Precisions

26. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?

Statements :

(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.

(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.

(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.

(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)

27. Inductive reasoning presupposes

(A) unity in human nature

(B) integrity in human nature

(C) uniformity in human nature

(D) harmony in human nature

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 28 to 33 :

Area under Major Horticulture Crops (in lakh hectares)

28. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture ?

(A) 2005–06 & 2006–07

(B) 2006–07 & 2008–09

(C) 2007–08 & 2008–09

(D) 2006–07 & 2007–08

29. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively :

(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent

(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent

(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent

(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent

30. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?

(A) Fruits

(B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers

(D) Total horticulture

31. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10

(A) Fruits

(B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers

(D) Total horticulture

32. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08?

(A) 53 percent

(B) 68 percent

(C) 79 percent

(D) 100 percent

33. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase ?

(A) 2006-07    (B) 2007-08

(C) 2008-09    (D) 2009-10

34. ‘www’ stands for

(A) work with web

(B) word wide web

(C) world wide web

(D) worth while web

35. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into

(A) Clusters

(B) Sectors

(C) Vectors

(D) Heads

36. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a/an

(A) Compiler

(B) Simulator

(C) Translator

(D) Interpreter

37. A Gigabyte is equal to

(A) 1024 Megabytes

(B) 1024 Kilobytes

(C) 1024 Terabytes

(D) 1024 Bytes

38. A Compiler is a software which converts

(A) characters to bits

(B) high level language to machine language

(C) machine language to high level language

(D) words to bits

39. Virtual memory is

(A) an extremely large main memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary memory.

(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.

(D) a type of memory used in super computers.

40. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is in the context of (A) tragic event related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.

(B) tragic conditions of poor people.

(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.

(D) climate change.

41. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion

(B) Hazardous waste

(C) Climate change

(D) Nuclear energy

42. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant ?

(A) Transport sector

(B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning

(C) Wetlands

(D) Fertilizers

43. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of

(A) Oxides of sulphur

(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons

(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM

(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

44. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans ?

(A) Earthquakes

(B) Forest fires

(C) Volcanic eruptions

(D) Droughts and Floods

45. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around

(A) 2-3%         (B) 22-25%

(C) 10-12%     (D) < 1%

46. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved ?

(A) OBC students

(B) SC students

(C) ST students

(D) Woman students

47. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC) ?

(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.

(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.

(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.

(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.

48. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :

Statement : Should India switch over to a two party system ?

Arguments : (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of  Government.

(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

49. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :

Statement : Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections ?

Arguments : (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.

(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?

1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.

2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.

4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

51. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to

(A) The President

(B) The Vice-President

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Cabinet Ministers

52. The black-board can be utilised best by a teacher for

(A) putting the matter of teaching in black and white

(B) making the students attentive

(C) writing the important and notable points

(D) highlighting the teacher himself

53. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is

(A) self study

(B) face-to-face learning

(C) e-learning

(D) blended learning

54. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they

(A) can teach children better than men.

(B) know basic content better than men.

(C) are available on lower salaries.

(D) can deal with children with love and affection.

55. Which one is the highest order of learning ?

(A) Chain learning

(B) Problem-solving learning

(C) Stimulus-response learning

(D) Conditioned-reflex learning

56. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he

(A) has control over students.

(B) commands respect from students.

(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.

(D) is very close to higher authorities.

57. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should

(A) use diagrams in teaching.

(B) speak more and more in the class.

(C) use teaching aids in the class.

(D) not speak too much in the class.

58. A research paper

(A) is a compilation of informationon a topic.

(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.

(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.

(D) can be published in more than  one journal.

59. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’ ?

(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.

(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.

(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.

(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.

60. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability ?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Quota Sampling

(D) Cluster Sampling